1. What is the term used to indicate a variation of delay?
2. A network engineer performs a ping test and receives a value that shows the time it takes for a packet to travel from a source device to a destination device and back. What term describes the value?
3. What role do network devices play in the IntServ QoS model?
Network devices ensure that resources are available before a host can send traffic across the network.*
Network devices provide a best effort approach to forwarding traffic.
Network devices are configured to service multiple classes of traffic and handle traffic as it arrives.
Network devices use hop-by-hop QoS to provide excellent scalability.
4. What device would be classified as a trusted terminal?
5.What is the benefit of implementing Layer 3 QoS marking in an enterprise network?
Layer 3 marking can carry QoS information from one end to the other.*
Layer 3 marking can carry QoS information on switches that are not IP aware.
Layer 3 marking can be carried in 802.1Q fields.
Layer 3 marking can be used to carry non-IP traffic.
Explanation:Marking traffic at layer 2 or layer 3 is very important and will affect how traffic is treated on a network using QoS.
Layer 2 frame marking can be performed for non-IP traffic.
Layer 2 frame marking is the only QoS option available to non-IP-aware switches.
Layer 3 marking will carry the QoS information from one end to the other.
6. What is the function of a QoS confidence bound?
A confidence boundary identifies the location where traffic cannot be observed.
A trust boundary only allows traffic in if it has been previously marked.
A trust boundary identifies which devices trust the marking of packets entering a network.*
A trust boundary only allows traffic from trusted endpoints to enter the network.
Explanation:Network traffic is classified and marked as close as possible to the source device. The trust boundary is the location where QoS markings on a packet are trusted when they enter an enterprise network.
7. What are two approaches to avoid packet loss due to congestion on an interface? (Choose two.)
Reduce the buffer space.
Disable queuing mechanisms.
Drop packages of lower priority.*
Avoid bursts of traffic.
Increase link capacity.*
Explanation:There are three approaches to prevent sensitive traffic from being dropped:
Increase link capacity to alleviate or avoid congestion.
Ensure sufficient bandwidth and increase buffer space to accommodate bursts of traffic for fragile streams.
Avoid congestion by dropping lower priority packets before congestion occurs.
8. Which configuration scenario would offer the most protection for getting and setting SNMP messages?
SNMPv2 for in-band management with read and write community strings
SNMPv1 with out-of-band management on a private subnet
SNMPv3 configured with security level auth*
snmp community strings
Explanation:SNMPv3 supports authentication and encryption with the auth and priv security levels. SNMPv1 and SNMPv2 do not support authentication or encryption. Using a default community string is not secure because the default string of "public" is well known and would allow anyone with SNMP systems to read the device's MIBs.
9. Check out the exhibit.
CCNA 3 v7.0 Modules 9 – 12 Exam Answers p9
The network administrator enters these commands on router R1:
R1# copy running-config tftpAddress o nombre del host remoto [ ]?
When the router requests a remote host name or address, what IP address should the administrator enter in the request?
Explanation:The requested address is the address of the TFTP server. A TFTP server is an application that can run on a multitude of network devices, including a router, server, or even a networked PC.
10. The ntp server 10.1.1.1 command is issued on a router. What impact does this command have?
determines which server to send system log files to
synchronizes the system clock with the time source with IP address 10.1.1.1*
identifies the server on which to store the backup configurations
ensures that all records will have a timestamp associated with them
Explanation:Then, the serverip-addressglobal configuration command configures the NTP server for IOS devices.
11. As a network administrator, you have been asked to implement EtherChannel on the corporate network. What is this configuration?
providing redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic
group two devices together to share a virtual IP address
group multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between two switches*
provide redundant devices to allow traffic to flow in the event of device failure
Explanation:EtherChannel is used in a network to increase speed capabilities by grouping multiple physical ports into one or more logical EtherChannel links between two switches. STP is used to provide redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic between switches. FHRPs are used to group physical devices together to provide traffic flow in case of failure.
12. What is the definition of a two-tier LAN network design?
the access and core layers collapsed into one tier, and the distribution layer into a separate tier
distribution and core layers collapsed into one tier, and access layer into a separate tier*
access, distribution, and core layers collapsed to a single level, with a separate backbone layer
the access and distribution layers collapsed into one tier, and the core layer into a separate tier
Explanation:Maintaining three separate network tiers is not always necessary or cost-effective. All network designs require an access layer, but a two-tier design can merge the core and distribution layers into a single layer to meet the needs of a small location with few users.
13. What are two reasons to create a network baseline? (Choose two.)
to select a routing protocol
to determine what type of equipment to implement
design a network according to a suitable model
to identify future abnormal network behavior*
to assess security vulnerabilities in the network
to determine if the network can offer the required policies*
Explanation:A network baseline is created to provide a point of comparison, when the network is performing optimally, with any changes that are implemented to the infrastructure. A baseline helps track performance, track traffic patterns, and monitor network behavior.
14. A computer can access devices on the same network but cannot access devices on other networks. What is the probable cause of this problem?
The computer has an incorrect subnet mask.
The computer has an invalid default gateway address.*
The cable is not properly connected to the NIC.
The computer has an invalid IP address.
Explanation:The default gateway is the address of the device that a host uses to access the Internet or another network. If the default gateway is missing or incorrect, that host will not be able to communicate outside of the local network. Since the host can access other hosts on the local network, the network cable and other parts of the IP configuration work.
15. In which symptom collection step does the network engineer determine if the problem is in the core, distribution, or access layer of the network?
Narrows the reach.*
Document the symptoms.
Determine the symptoms.
Explanation:In the "narrow the scope" step of symptom collection, a network engineer will determine if the network problem is in the core, distribution, or access layer of the network. Once this step is complete and the layer is identified, the network engineer can determine which computers are the most likely cause.
16. A network administrator is implementing QoS with the ability to provide a special queue for voice traffic so that voice traffic is forwarded before network traffic in other queues. Which queue method would be the best option?
Explanation:Low Latency Queuing (LLQ) allows delay-sensitive data, such as voice traffic, to be defined in a Strict Priority Queue (PQ) and always sent first before packets in any other queue are forwarded .
17. What are two characteristics of voice traffic? (Choose two.)
Voice traffic latency should not exceed 150 ms.*
Voice traffic is unpredictable and inconsistent.
Voice traffic requires at least 384 kbps of bandwidth.
Voice traffic consumes a lot of network resources.
Discarded voice packets are not retransmitted.*
Explanation:Voice traffic does not consume many network resources, such as bandwidth. However, it is very sensitive to delay and lost packets cannot be retransmitted. For good voice quality, the amount of latency should always be less than 150 milliseconds.
18. What type of network traffic cannot be managed with congestion avoidance tools?
Explanation:Queuing and compression techniques can help reduce and prevent UDP packet loss, but they do not prevent congestion for User Datagram Protocol (UDP)-based traffic.
19. When implementing QoS on a converged network, which two factors can be controlled to improve network performance for real-time traffic? (Choose two.)
Explanation:Lag is the latency between a sending device and a receiving device. Jitter is the variation in the delay of received packets. Both delay and jitter must be controlled to support real-time video and voice traffic.
20. An administrator wants to replace the configuration file on a Cisco router by uploading a new configuration file from a TFTP server. What two things does the administrator need to know before performing this task? (Choose two.)
name of the configuration file that is currently stored in the router
config registry value
name of the configuration file that is stored on the TFTP server*
router ip address
TFTP server IP address*
Explanation:To identify the exact location of the desired configuration file, the IP address of the TFTP server and the name of the configuration file are essential information. Because the file is a new configuration, the current configuration file name is not required.
21. Check out the exhibit.
CCNA 3 v7.0 Modules 9 – 12 Exam Answers p21
Which of the three Cisco IOS images shown will be loaded into RAM?
The router selects an image based on the boot system command in setup.*
The router selects an image depending on the value of the configuration register.
The router selects the third Cisco IOS image because it is the latest IOS image.
The router selects the third Cisco IOS image because it contains the advipservicesk9 image.
The router selects the second Cisco IOS image because it is the smallest IOS image.
Explanation:When upgrading or trying different IOS versions, the boot system command is used to select which image is used to boot the Cisco device.
22. Check out the exhibit.
CCNA 3 v7.0 Modules 9 – 12 Exam Answers p22
What two types of devices are connected to R1? (Choose two.)
source route bridge
Explanation:The capabilities of the devices shown in the output show that they are a Cisco 2811 Series Router, a Cisco 1941 Series Router, and a Cisco 2960 Switch.
23. What are the three functions provided by the syslog service? (Choose three.)
to select the type of log information that is captured*
to periodically poll agents for data
to provide statistics about packets flowing through a Cisco device
to provide traffic analysis
to collect log information for monitoring and troubleshooting*
to specify the destinations of captured messages*
Explanation:There are three main functions provided by the syslog service:
1. Collection of Registration Information
2. selection of the type of information to record
3. Selection of the destination of the registered information
24. What is the function of the MIB element as part of a network management system?
to collect data from SNMP agents
to send and retrieve network management information
to change settings on SNMP agents
to store data about a device*
Explanation:The Management Information Base (MIB) resides on a network device and stores operational data about the device. The SNMP manager can collect information from SNMP agents. The SNMP agent provides access to the information.
25. What network design would contain the scope of outages in a network if a failure occurred?
the reduction in the number of redundant devices and connections in the core of the network
installing only enterprise-class equipment on the entire network
deploying distribution layer switches in pairs and splitting access layer switch connections between them*
configuring all access layer devices to share a single gateway
Explanation:One way to contain the impact of a network failure is to implement redundancy. One way to achieve this is by implementing redundant distribution layer switches and splitting the access layer switch connections among the redundant distribution layer switches. This creates what is called a switch block. Failures in a switch block are contained in that block and do not bring down the entire network.
26. What action should be taken when planning for redundancy in a hierarchical network design?
add alternate physical paths for data to traverse the network*
continually purchase backup equipment for the network
implement STP portfast between network switches
immediately replace a module, service or device that is not working on a network
Explanation:One method of implementing redundancy is path redundancy, installing alternate physical paths for data to traverse the network. Redundant links in a switched network support high availability and can be used for load balancing, which reduces congestion on the network.
27. What are two benefits of extending access layer connectivity to users over a wireless medium? (Choose two.)
more network management options
reduced number of critical failure points
higher bandwidth availability
Explanation:Wireless connectivity at the access layer provides greater flexibility, reduced costs, and the ability to grow and adapt to changing business requirements. The use of wireless routers and access points can provide an increase in the number of central points of failure. Wireless routers and access points will not provide an increase in bandwidth availability.
28. What is a basic function of the access layer of the Cisco Borderless Architecture?
add layer 2 broadcast domains
provides user access*
adds layer 3 routing boundaries
provides fault isolation
Explanation:One function of the access layer of the Cisco Borderless Architecture is to provide network access to users. Layer 2 broadcast domain aggregation, Layer 3 routing boundary aggregation, and high availability are functions of the distribution layer. The core layer provides fault isolation and high-speed backbone connectivity.
29. Which feature would most influence a network design engineer to select a multilayer switch over a layer 2 switch?
ability to have multiple forwarding paths through the switched network based on VLAN numbers
ability to build a routing table*
ability to provide power to directly connected devices and the switch itself
ability to add multiple ports for maximum data throughput
Explanation:Multilayer switches, also known as Layer 3 switches, can route and create a routing table. This capability is required in a multi-VLAN network and would influence the network designer to select a multilayer switch. The other options are features that are also available on Layer 2 switches, so they will not influence the decision to select a multilayer switch.
30. See the exhibit.
CCNA 3 v7.0 Modules 9 – 12 Exam Answers p30
Why can't routers R1 and R2 establish an OSPF adjacency?
The serial interfaces are not in the same area.*
The process numbers are not the same on both routers.
A backbone router cannot establish an adjacency with an ABR router.
The router ID values are not the same on both routers.
Explanation:On router R1, the 192.168.10.0/30 network is defined in the wrong area (area 1). It has to be defined in area 0 in order to establish adjacency with router R2, which has the 192.168.10.0/30 network defined in area 0.
31. When is the most appropriate time to measure network operations to establish a network performance baseline?
whenever high network usage is detected, so that network performance under stress can be monitored
during quiet holiday periods, so that the level of non-data traffic can be determined
at the same time every day for a given period of average business days, so that typical traffic patterns can be established*
at random times over a 10-week period so abnormal traffic levels can be detected
Explanation:The purpose of establishing a network performance baseline is to provide a baseline of normal or average network usage to allow anomalies in data traffic to be detected and then investigated. Network operations that are not average or normal cannot be used to establish a network performance baseline.
32. See the exhibit.
CCNA 3 v7.0 Modules 9 – 12 Exam Answers p32
A user has configured a NIC on the PC as shown, but finds that the PC cannot access the Internet. What is the problem?
The preferred DNS address is incorrect.
The default gateway address is incorrect.*
The configuration was not validated on exit.
There should not be an alternate DNS server.
Explanation:In order for a computer to communicate outside of your network, it must have a valid default gateway configured. This address cannot be the same as the computer's IP address.
33. See the exhibit.
CCNA 3 v7.0 Modules 9 – 12 Exam Answers p33
A network engineer configured an ACL that prevented Telnet and HTTP access to the headquarters web server from guest users on the branch LAN. The web server address is 192.168.1.10 and all guest users are assigned addresses on the 192.168.10.0/24 network. After implementing the ACL, no one can access any of the HQ servers. What is the problem?
Inbound ACLs must be routed before they are processed.
The ACL implicitly denies access to all servers.*
Named ACLs require the use of port numbers.
The ACL is applied to the interface using the wrong address.
Explanation:Both named and numbered ACLs have an implicit deny ACE at the end of the list. This implicit deny blocks all traffic.
34. See the exhibit.
CCNA 3 v7.0 Modules 9 – 12 Exam Answers p34
A network administrator has configured OSPFv2 on the two Cisco routers, as shown. PC1 cannot connect to PC2. What should the administrator do first when troubleshooting an OSPFv2 implementation?
Disconnect the serial link between router R1 and R2.
Turn off OSPFv2.
Implement the network 192.168.255.0 0.0.0.3 area 0 command on router R1.
Test Layer 3 connectivity between directly connected routers.*
Explanation:A prerequisite for OSPFv2 neighbor relationships to form between two routers is Layer 3 connectivity. A successful ping confirms that a router interface is up and can form an OSPF neighbor adjacency.
35. Which type of traffic is described as requiring a latency of no more than 150 milliseconds (ms)?
36. A network administrator wants to add a time to log messages so that there is a record of when the message was generated. What command should the administrator use on a Cisco router?
show cdp interface
servidor ntp 10.10.14.9
date and time of service timestamp record*
PST clock time zone -7
37. Match the functions with the corresponding layers. (Not all options are used.)
CCNA 3 v7.0 Modules 9 – 12 Exam Answers p37
38. Match the description of the Borderless Switched Network guide to the beginning. (Not all options are used.)
CCNA 3 v7.0 Modules 9 – 12 Exam Answers p38
39. What are two characteristics of the best effort QoS model? (Choose two.)
It allows end hosts to signal their QoS needs to the network.
It uses a connection-oriented approach to QoS.
Provides preferential treatment for voice packages.
Does not offer package delivery guarantee.*
Treat all network packets the same way.*
Explanation:The best effort QoS model offers no guarantees and is commonly used on the Internet. The best effort QoS model treats all network packets in the same way.
40. Why is QoS an important issue in a converged network that combines voice, video, and data communications?
Data communications are sensitive to instability.
Legacy equipment cannot transmit voice and video without QoS.
Voice and video communications are more sensitive to latency.*
Data communications should have the highest priority.
Explanation:Without any QoS mechanism in place, time-sensitive packets like voice and video will be dropped just as frequently as email and web browsing traffic.
41. A network administrator configures a router with the script:
R1(config)#bootsystem tftp://c1900-universalk9-mz.SPA.152-4.M3.binR1(config)#bootsystem rom
What is the effect of the script?
At the next reboot, the router will load the IOS image from the ROM.
The router will search for and load a valid IOS image in the flash, TFTP, and ROM stream.
The router will copy the IOS image from the TFTP server and then reboot the system.
The router will load IOS from the TFTP server. If the image does not load, it will load the IOS image from the ROM.*
Explanation:The boot system command is a global configuration command that allows the user to specify the source for the Cisco IOS Software image to be loaded from. In this case, the router is configured to boot from the IOS image that is stored on the TFTP server and will use the ROMmon image that is located in the ROM if it cannot locate the TFTP server or cannot load a valid image from the TFTP . server.
42. Which statement describes the operation of SNMP?
An SNMP agent residing on a managed device collects information about the device and stores that information remotely in the MIB found on the NMS.
The NMS uses a set request to change configuration variables on the agent device.*
An NMS periodically polls SNMP agents residing on managed devices by using traps to query the devices for data.
The SNMP agent uses a get request to query the device for data.
Explanation:An SNMP agent residing on a managed device collects and stores information about the device and its operation. The agent stores this information locally in the MIB. An NMS periodically polls SNMP agents residing on managed devices using the get request to query the devices for data.
43. See the exhibit.
CCNA 3 v7.0 Modules 9 – 12 Exam Answers p43
A network administrator issues the show lldp neighbors command on a switch. What are two conclusions that can be drawn? (Choose two.)
Dev1 is connected to interface Fa0/5 of S1.*
Dev1 is a switch with mixed types of interfaces.
Dev2 is a switch.*
Dev1 is connected to the Fa0/4 interface of Dev2.
S1 has only two interfaces.
Explanation:In the show lldp command output, under Capacity, R indicates a router and B indicates a bridge (switch). Nothing indicates that Dev1 and Dev2 are connected to each other.
44. What are the three layers of the hierarchical switch design model? (Choose three.)
Explanation:The access layer is the lowest layer and provides network access to users. The distribution layer has many functions, but it aggregates data from the access layer, provides filtering, policy control, and sets routing boundaries for Layer 3. The core layer provides high-speed connectivity.
45. See the exhibit.
CCNA 3 v7.0 Modules 9 – 12 Exam Answers p45
What devices exist in the fault domain when switch S3 loses power?
S4 y PC_2
PC_3 y PC_2
PC_3 y AP_2*
S1 y S4
AP_2 y AP_1
Explanation:A failure domain is the area of a network that is affected when a critical device, such as switch S3, fails or experiences problems.
46. A network designer is considering implementing a switch block in the company network. What is the main advantage of implementing a switch block?
This is a network application software that prevents the failure of a single network device.
The failure of one switch block will not affect all end users.*
This is a security feature that is available on all new Catalyst switches.
A single-core router provides all routing between VLANs.
Explanation:The configuration of a switch block provides redundancy so that the failure of a single network device typically has little or no effect on end users.
47. Which troubleshooting tool would a network administrator use to check the Layer 2 header of frames leaving a particular host?
Explanation:A protocol analyzer such as Wireshark is capable of displaying data headers at any OSI layer.
48. See the exhibit.
CCNA 3 v7.0 Modules 9 – 12 Exam Answers p48
R1 and R3 are connected to each other through the local serial 0/0/0 interface. Why aren't they forming an adjacency?
They have different routing processes.
They have different router IDs.
They are on different subnets.*
The connection interfaces are configured as passive.
Explanation:The routers must be on the same subnet to form an adjacency. Routing processes can be different on each router. Router IDs must be different for routers participating in the same routing domain. The interfaces are not passive.
49. Which type of traffic is described as non-loss resistant?
50. A network administrator wants lists of flash content. What command should the administrator use on a Cisco router?
show file systems
date and time of service timestamp record
51. An IP phone receives voice packets in a continuous stream, but due to network congestion, the delay between each packet varies and causes interruptions in conversations. What term describes the cause of this condition?
standing in line
52. A user cannot reach the website when typing http://www.cisco.com in a web browser, but can reach the same site by typing http://184.108.40.206. What is the problem?
TCP/IP protocol stack
53. What type of traffic is described as tending to be unpredictable, inconsistent, and bursty?
54. A network administrator wants to determine the size of the Cisco IOS image file on the network device. What command should the administrator use on a Cisco router?
show flash: 0*
copiar flash: tftp:
configuration register 0x2102
55. What is the principle that applies when a network technician is troubleshooting a network failure using the divide and conquer method?
Testing is done on Layer 7 and Layer 1, then Layers 6 and 2, and so on, working toward the middle of the stack until all layers are verified to be operational.
Once the components in a particular layer are verified to be working correctly, it can be assumed that the components in the lower layers are working as well.
Testing is performed on all layers of the OSI model until a non-functioning component is found.
Once a component on a particular layer is verified to be working properly, testing can be performed on any other layer.*
56. Which queuing algorithm has only one queue and treats all packets equally?
57. Which type of traffic is described as traffic that requires at least 30 Kbps of bandwidth?
How many questions are there in CCNA 3 final exam? ›
How many questions are on the CCNA certification exam? The duration of the CCNA 200-301 exam is 120 minutes and you can expect about 100-120 questions.What is the Internet CCNA exam? ›
CCNA stands for Cisco Certified Network Associate, which is a certification you can earn after taking the 120-minute exam administered by Cisco. The exam tests your knowledge and skills related to network fundamentals, network access, IP connectivity, IP services, security fundamentals, and automation.What type of network traffic requires QoS? ›
QoS is typically applied to networks that carry traffic for resource-intensive systems. Common services for which it is required include internet protocol television (IPTV), online gaming, streaming media, videoconferencing, video on demand (VOD), and Voice over IP (VoIP).