CCNA 2 SRWE - Switching, Routing, and Wireless Essentials (Version 7.00) - SRWE Final Exam Answers (2023)

Table of Contents
See exhibition. What are the possible port roles for ports A, B, C and D in this RSTP enabled network? See exhibition. What destination MAC address is used when frames are sent from the workstation to the default gateway? What is a secure configuration option for remote access to a network device? After a host generates an IPv6 address using the DHCPv6 or SLAAC process, how does the host verify that the address is unique and therefore usable? See exhibition. Host A sent a packet to Host B. What source MAC and IP addresses does the packet contain when it arrives at Host B? After connecting four PCs to the switch ports, configuring the SSID, and setting the authentication properties for a small office network, a technician successfully tests the connectivity of all the PCs connected to the switch and the WLAN. A firewall is then configured on the device before it is connected to the Internet. What kind of network device contains all the described functions? Which WiFi encryption method is the most secure? Match the description to the correct VLAN type. (Not all options are used.) See exhibition. A network administrator has connected two switches together using EtherChannel technology. When STP runs, what will the end result be? What are three techniques to mitigate VLAN attacks? (Choose three.) An administrator attempts to remove configurations from a switch. After using the erase startup-config command and reloading the switch, the administrator finds that VLANs 10 and 100 still exist on the switch. Why weren't these VLANs removed? See exhibition. What static route would an IT tech enter to create a backup route to the 172.16.1.0 network to be used only if the primary RIP learned route fails? See exhibition. In addition to the static routes that route traffic to the 10.10.0.0/16 and 10.20.0.0/16 networks, Router HQ is also configured with the following command:ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/1/1What is the purpose of this command? See exhibition. A network administrator configures inter-VLAN routing on a network. Only one VLAN is currently in use, but more will be added soon. What is the missing parameter shown as a highlighted question mark in the graph? Match connection status to interface and protocol status. (Not all options are used.) See exhibition. How is a frame sent by PCA forwarded to PCC when the MAC address table on switch SW1 is empty? Map the DHCP message types to the order of the DHCPv4 process. (Not all options are used.) A network administrator configures a WLAN. Why would the administrator disable the broadcast function for the SSID? What are the two advantages of using static routes on a router versus dynamic routes? (Choose two.) See exhibition. Which route has been configured as a static route to a specific network using the next hop address? See exhibition. What is the metric to forward a data packet with IPv6 destination address 2001:DB8:ACAD:E:240:BFF:FED4:9DD2? A static route has been configured on a router. However, the target network no longer exists. What should an administrator do to remove the static route from the routing table? Which two statements are characteristics of routed ports on a multilayer switch? (Choose two.)​ See exhibition. After attempting to enter the configuration displayed in Router RTA, an administrator receives an error message and users in VLAN 20 report that they cannot reach users in VLAN 30. What is causing the problem? See exhibition. Which trunk connection does not forward traffic after the root bridge election process is complete? A network administrator prepares to deploy Rapid PVST+ on a production network. How are the Rapid PVST+ connection types determined on the switch interfaces? Which two types of spanning tree protocols can cause suboptimal traffic flows because they assume only one spanning tree instance for the entire bridged network? (Choose two.) What action takes place when the source MAC address of a frame entering a switch appears in the MAC address table associated with a different port? A network administrator configures port security on a switch. The security policy states that each access port should allow up to two MAC addresses. When the maximum number of MAC addresses is reached, a frame with the unknown source MAC address is dropped and a notification is sent to the syslog server. Which security breach mode should be configured for each access port? Which network attack does activating BPDU Guard prevent? A network administrator uses the spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default global configuration command to enable BPDU Guard on a switch. However, the BPDU guard is not enabled on all access ports. What is the cause of the problem? A new Layer 3 switch is connected to a router and configured for InterVLAN routing. Which three of the five steps are required for the configuration? (Choose three.) * A company sets up a wireless network at its distribution facility in suburban Boston. The camp is quite large and requires the use of multiple access points. Since some of the corporate devices still operate at 2.4 GHz, the network administrator decides to use the 802.11g standard. Which channel assignments at the multiple access points ensure that the radio channels do not overlap? Which wireless authentication method depends on a RADIUS authentication server? An administrator notices that a large number of packets are being dropped on one of the branch office routers. What to do or check? Match the step number to the sequence of phases that occur during the HSRP failover process. (Not all options are used.) In what situation would a technician use the show switch interfaces command? See exhibition. If the default gateway router and DNS server IP addresses are correct, what is the configuration problem? See exhibition. A network administrator has added a new subnet to the network and needs hosts on that subnet to obtain IPv4 addresses from the DHCPv4 server. What two commands allow hosts on the new subnet to get addresses from the DHCP4 server? (Choose two.) See exhibition. R1 has been configured as shown. However, PC1 cannot receive an IPv4 address. What's the problem?​ What network attack attempts to create a DoS for clients by preventing them from obtaining a DHCP lease? A cybersecurity analyst uses the macof tool to assess configurations of switches deployed in an organization's backbone network. What type of LAN attack is the analyst targeting in this assessment? What information does a switch use to populate the MAC address table? Which statement describes a result after connecting multiple Cisco LAN switches together? Assign the redirection characteristic to its type. (Not all options are used.) Which method of IPv6 prefix assignment is based on the prefix contained in RA messages? On a Cisco 3504 WLC summary page ( Advanced > Summary ), which tab allows a network administrator to configure a specific wireless network with a WPA2 policy? A network administrator at a small advertising company uses WPA2-PSK to configure wireless security. What access data do office users need to connect their laptop to the WLAN? Which two default wireless router settings can compromise network security? (Choose two.) See exhibition. Based on the configuration and output shown, why is VLAN 99 missing? What three pairs of trunking modes produce a working trunk connection between two Cisco switches? (Choose three.) What three steps should be taken before moving a Cisco switch to a new VTP management domain? (Choose three.) Select the three PAgP channel setup modes. (Choose three.) See exhibition. What static route command can be entered on R1 to route traffic to the LAN connected to R2? See exhibition. R1 has been configured with the static route command ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 S0/0/0 and consequently users on the 172.16.0.0/16 network cannot reach resources on the internet. How should this static route be modified to allow user traffic from the LAN to reach the internet? See exhibition. Currently router R1 uses an EIGRP route learned from Branch2 to reach the 10.10.0.0/16 network. What static floating route would create a backup route to the 10.10.0.0/16 network in case the link between R1 and Branch2 fails? See exhibition. A network engineer configures IPv6 routing on the network. Which command issued on Router HQ configures a default route to the Internet to forward packets to a destination IPv6 network not listed in the routing table?​ What protocol or technology does a standby router use to take responsibility for packet forwarding if the active router fails? What is the effect of entering the ip arp inspection vlan 10 configuration command on a switch? See exhibition. A network administrator checks the configuration of switch S1. Which protocol was implemented to combine multiple physical ports into one logical connection? Successful inter-VLAN routing has worked for some time in a network with multiple VLANs across multiple switches. When a trunk link between switches fails and the Spanning Tree Protocol establishes a backup trunk link, hosts in two VLANs are reported to be able to access some, but not all, network resources that were previously accessible. Hosts in all other VLANS do not have this problem. What is the most likely cause of this problem? See exhibition. An administrator tries to install an IPv6 static route on router R1 to reach the network attached to router R2. After entering the static route command, the connection to the network still fails. What mistake was made in static route configuration? What protocol or technology does the source IP to destination IP use as a load balancing mechanism? See exhibition. Router R1 has an OSPF neighbor relationship with the ISP router over the 192.168.0.32 network. The network connection 192.168.0.36 should serve as a backup if the OSPF connection fails. The floating static route command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/1 100 was issued on R1 and now the traffic uses the backup connection even if the OSPF connection is up and working. What change should be made to the static route command so that traffic only uses the OSPF link when it is up?​ What kind of static route is configured with greater administrative distance to provide a backup route to a route learned from a dynamic routing protocol? Which option shows a properly configured default IPv4 static route? Which command starts the process of bonding two physical interfaces to create an EtherChannel group over LACP? What would be the main reason why an attacker would launch a MAC address overflow attack? What is a method to launch a VLAN hopping attack? See exhibition. All switches shown are Cisco 2960 switches with the same default priority and operating at the same bandwidth. Which three ports will be STP designated ports? (Choose three.) What is the general term for SNMP log messages generated by network devices and sent to the SNMP server? A technician troubleshoots a slow Wi-Fi network and decides to take a split-the-traffic approach. Which two parameters would have to be configured for this? (Choose two.) A corporate security policy requires that all MAC addresses be dynamically learned and added to both the MAC address table and the running configuration on each switch. What port security configuration will achieve this? What is the IPv6 prefix used for link-local addresses? What action takes place when a frame entering a switch has a unicast destination MAC address that is not in the MAC address table? A new switch is to be added to an existing network in a remote office. The network administrator does not want the technicians in the remote office to be able to add new VLANs to the switch, but the switch should receive VLAN updates from the VTP domain. What two steps must be taken to configure VTP on the new switch to meet these conditions? (Choose two.) See exhibition. Given that port Fa0/4 on both switches is configured to carry traffic for multiple VLANs, which three hosts will receive ARP requests from Host A? (Choose three.) A technician configures a router for a small business with multiple wireless networks and doesn't need the complexity of a dynamic routing protocol. What to do or check? What two functions does a WLC take on when using Split Media Access Control (MAC)? (Choose two.) See exhibition. A network administrator has configured routers R1 and R2 as part of HSRP Group 1. After the routers were reloaded, a user on Host1 complained about a lack of connection to the internet. The network administrator issued the show standby short command on both routers to verify HSRP operations. The administrator also observed the ARP table on Host1. What entry should you see in the ARP table on Host1 to connect to the internet? A network administrator configures a new Cisco switch for remote management access. What three items need to be configured on the switch for the task? (Choose three.) See exhibition. What can be concluded from the configuration shown on R1? What action does a DHCPv4 client take when receiving more than one DHCPOFFER from multiple DHCP servers? Which protocol should be disabled to mitigate VLAN attacks? Why is DHCP snooping required when using the Dynamic ARP Inspection feature? To get an overview of the spanning tree status of a switched network, a network engineer issues the show spanning-tree command at a switch. What two pieces of information does this command display? (Choose two.) A WLAN engineer deploys a WLC and five wireless APs using CAPWAP protocol with DTLS function to secure the control plane of network devices. When testing the wireless network, the WLAN engineer finds that the data traffic between the WLC and the APs is exchanged in plain text and is not encrypted. What is the most likely reason for this? See exhibition. The network administrator configures both switches as shown. However, Host C cannot ping Host D and Host E cannot ping Host F. What actions should the admin take to enable this communication? What action takes place if the source MAC address of a frame entering a switch is not in the MAC address table? A technician configures a wireless network for a small business using a SOHO wireless router. What two authentication methods are used when the router is configured with WPA2? (Choose two.) ** A network administrator adds a new WLAN on a Cisco 3500 Series WLC. On which tab should the admin create a new VLAN interface to be used for the new WiFi? See exhibition. What two conclusions can be drawn from the output? (Choose two.) Which three statements accurately describe the duplex and speed settings on Cisco 2960 switches? (Choose three.) See exhibition. A Layer 3 switch routes for three VLANs and connects to a router for internet connectivity. What two configurations would be applied to the switch? (Choose two.) See exhibition. Note that main power has just been restored. PC3 issues a broadcast IPv4 DHCP request. To which port does SW1 forward this request?​ Which statement about how a Layer 2 switch determines how frames are forwarded is correct? Employees cannot connect to servers on any of the internal networks. What to do or check? What protocol or technology requires switches in server or client mode? What does entering the shutdown configuration command do on a switch? What else is required when configuring a static IPv6 route with a link-local next-hop address? ** A junior engineer added a route to a LAN router. A traceroute to a device on the new network returned an incorrect path and unreachable status. What to do or check? A network technician troubleshoots a newly deployed wireless network that uses the latest 802.11 standards. When users access high-bandwidth services such as B. video streaming, wireless network performance is poor. To improve performance, the network engineer decides to configure a 5 GHz frequency band SSID and train users to use that SSID for streaming media services. Why could this solution improve wireless network performance for this type of service? On which switch ports should BPDU Guard be enabled to improve STP stability? How does a router handle static routing differently when Cisco Express Forwarding is disabled? Which protocol or technology allows data to be transmitted over redundant switch connections? A PC sent an RS message to an IPv6 router connected to the same network. What two pieces of information does the router send to the client? (Choose two.) What two VTP modes allow creating, modifying and deleting VLANs on the local switch? (Choose two.) See exhibition. What does router R1 do with a packet with destination IPv6 address 2001:db8:cafe:5::1? What is a disadvantage of local database method of securing device access that can be solved by using AAA with centralized servers? What three Wi-Fi standards operate in the 2.4 GHz frequency range? (Choose three.) Which command creates a static route on R2 to reach PC B? What is the effect of entering the configuration command to access switchport mode on a switch? See exhibition. Which statement shown in the output allows router R1 to respond to stateless DHCPv6 requests? See exhibition. The network administrator configures the port security feature on the switch SWC. The administrator has issued the show port-security interface fa 0/2 command to verify the configuration. What can be concluded from the shown output? (Choose three.) What are two reasons a network administrator should segment a network with a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two.) What action takes place when a frame entering a switch has a unicast destination MAC address that appears in the MAC address table? A network administrator uses the router-on-a-stick model to configure a switch and router for inter-VLAN routing. What configuration should be done on the switch port that connects to the router? What does entering the switchport port-security configuration command do on a switch? Users on a LAN cannot access a corporate web server, but can get elsewhere. What to do or check? See exhibition. A network administrator configures router R1 for IPv6 address assignment. Based on the partial configuration, what IPv6 global unicast address allocation scheme does the administrator intend to implement? Match the step of each description to the switch boot sequence. (Not all options are used.) What protocol or technology disables redundant paths to eliminate Layer 2 loops? When is authorization performed during the AAA process? What two protocols are used to provide server-based AAA authentication? (Choose two.) FAQs Videos

  • See exhibition. What are the possible port roles for ports A, B, C and D in this RSTP enabled network?

    • designated, alternative, root, root
    • designated, root, alternative, root
    • alternative, root, designated, root
    • alternatively, denoted, root, root

      Answers Explanation & Notes:

      Since S1 is the root bridge, B is a designated port and C and D are root ports. RSTP supports a new port type, alternative port in discard state, which can be port A in this scenario.

  • See exhibition. What destination MAC address is used when frames are sent from the workstation to the default gateway?

    • MAC address of the virtual router
    • MAC addresses of both forwarding and standby routers
    • MAC-Address of Standby-Routers
    • MAC address of the forwarding router

      Answers Explanation & Notes:

      The virtual router IP address acts as the default gateway for all workstations. Therefore, the MAC address returned to the workstation by the Address Resolution Protocol is the MAC address of the virtual router.

  • What is a secure configuration option for remote access to a network device?

    • Configure SSH.
    • Configure 802.1x.
    • Configure an ACL and apply it to the VTY lines.
    • Configure telnet.

  • After a host generates an IPv6 address using the DHCPv6 or SLAAC process, how does the host verify that the address is unique and therefore usable?

    • The host checks the local neighbor's cache for the learned address, and if the address is not stored in the cache, it is considered unique.
    • The host sends an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message to the DHCP or SLAAC learned address, and if no Neighbor Advertisement is returned, the address is considered unique.
    • The host sends an ICMPv6 Echo Request message to the DHCPv6 or SLAAC learned address, and if no response is returned, the address is considered unique.
    • The host sends an ARP broadcast on the local link, and if no host sends a reply, the address is considered unique.

      Answers Explanation & Notes:

      Before a host can actually configure and use an IPv6 address learned via SLAAC or DHCP, the host must ensure that no other host is already using that address. To verify that the address is indeed unique, the host sends an ICMPv6 neighbor query to the address. If no Neighbor Advertisement is returned, the host considers the address unique and configures it on the interface.

  • See exhibition. Host A sent a packet to Host B. What source MAC and IP addresses does the packet contain when it arrives at Host B?

    • Quell-MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799
      Quell-IP: 10.1.1.10
    • Quell-MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799
      Quell-IP: 10.1.1.1
    • Quell-MAC: 00E0.FE10.17A3
      Quell-IP: 10.1.1.10
    • Quell-MAC: 00E0.FE10.17A3
      Quell-IP: 192.168.1.1
    • Quell-MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799
      Quell-IP: 192.168.1.1

      Explanation:

      When a packet traverses the network, the Layer 2 addresses change on each hop as the packet is decapsulated and re-encapsulated, but the Layer 3 addresses remain the same.

  • After connecting four PCs to the switch ports, configuring the SSID, and setting the authentication properties for a small office network, a technician successfully tests the connectivity of all the PCs connected to the switch and the WLAN. A firewall is then configured on the device before it is connected to the Internet. What kind of network device contains all the described functions?

    • standalone wireless access point
    • Firewall-Appliance
    • switch
    • WLAN router

  • Which WiFi encryption method is the most secure?

    • WPA2 mit AES
    • WPA2 with TKIP
    • WEP
    • WPA

  • Match the description to the correct VLAN type. (Not all options are used.)

    Answers Explanation & Notes:

    A data VLAN is configured to carry user-generated traffic. A default VLAN is the VLAN to which all switch ports belong after a switch boots into the default configuration for the first time. A native VLAN is assigned to an 802.1Q trunk port and untagged traffic is placed on it. A management VLAN is any VLAN configured to access the management functions of a switch. It is assigned an IP address and subnet mask, allowing the switch to be managed over HTTP, Telnet, SSH, or SNMP.

  • See exhibition. A network administrator has connected two switches together using EtherChannel technology. When STP runs, what will the end result be?

    • The switches perform load balancing and use both EtherChannels to forward packets.
    • Both port channels are shut down.
    • The resulting loop creates a broadcast storm.
    • STP blocks one of the redundant connections.

      Answers Explanation & Notes:

      Cisco switches support two protocols for negotiating a channel between two switches: LACP and PAgP. PAgP is Cisco proprietary. In the topology shown, the switches are connected to each other via redundant links. By default, STP is enabled on switch devices. STP blocks redundant connections to avoid loops.

  • What are three techniques to mitigate VLAN attacks? (Choose three.)

    • Activate the BPDU guard.
    • Set the native VLAN to an unused VLAN.
    • Use private VLANs.
    • Disable DTP.
    • Enable source protection.
    • Manually enable trunking.

      Answers Explanation & Notes:

      A VLAN attack can be mitigated by disabling Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP), manually setting ports to trunking mode, and setting the native VLAN of trunk links to unused VLANs.

  • An administrator attempts to remove configurations from a switch. After using the erase startup-config command and reloading the switch, the administrator finds that VLANs 10 and 100 still exist on the switch. Why weren't these VLANs removed?

    • These VLANs can only be deleted when the switch is in VTP Client mode.
    • These VLANs can only be removed from the switch using the no vlan 10 and no vlan 100 commands.
    • These VLANs are default VLANs that cannot be removed.
    • Because these VLANs are stored in a file called vlan.dat that resides in flash memory, this file must be manually deleted.

      Answers Explanation & Notes:

      Default range VLANs (1-1005) are stored in a file called vlan.dat located in flash memory. Clearing the boot configuration and reloading a switch does not automatically remove these VLANs. The vlan.dat file must be manually deleted from the flash memory and the switch then reloaded.

  • See exhibition. What static route would an IT tech enter to create a backup route to the 172.16.1.0 network to be used only if the primary RIP learned route fails?

    • IP-Route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 s0/0/0
    • IP-Route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 s0/0/0 91
    • IP-Route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 s0/0/0 111
    • IP-Route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 s0/0/0 121

      Answers Explanation & Notes:

      A static backup route is called a floating static route. A floating static route has a management distance that is greater than the management distance of any other static or dynamic route.

  • See exhibition. In addition to the static routes that route traffic to the 10.10.0.0/16 and 10.20.0.0/16 networks, Router HQ is also configured with the following command:ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/1/1What is the purpose of this command?

    • Packets from the 10.10.0.0/16 network are forwarded to the 10.20.0.0/16 network, and packets from the 10.20.0.0/16 network are forwarded to the 10.10.0.0/16 network.
    • Packets received from the Internet are forwarded to one of the LANs connected to R1 or R2.
    • Packets with a destination network that is not 10.10.0.0/16 or 10.20.0.0/16 or is not a directly connected network are forwarded to the Internet.
    • Packets destined for networks not included in HQ's routing table are discarded.

  • See exhibition. A network administrator configures inter-VLAN routing on a network. Only one VLAN is currently in use, but more will be added soon. What is the missing parameter shown as a highlighted question mark in the graph?

    • It identifies the number of hosts allowed on the interface.
    • It identifies the type of encapsulation used.
    • It identifies the subinterface.
    • It identifies the native VLAN number.
    • It identifies the VLAN number.

      Answers Explanation & Notes:

      The finished command would be encapsulation dot1q 7 . The dot1q encapsulation portion of the command enables trunking and identifies the type of trunking to use. The 7 identifies the VLAN number.

  • Match connection status to interface and protocol status. (Not all options are used.)

    Explanation:

    The Cisco login and password commands are used with Telnet switch configuration, not with SSH configuration.

    (Video) [CCNA 2 Final Practical Exam] SRWE Final PT Skills Assessment Exam (PTSA)

  • See exhibition. How is a frame sent by PCA forwarded to PCC when the MAC address table on switch SW1 is empty?

    • SW1 forwards the frame directly to SW2. SW2 floods the frame to all ports connected to SW2 except the port through which the frame entered the switch.
    • SW1 floods the frame on all ports of the switch except the port connected to the switch SW2 and the port through which the frame entered the switch.
    • SW1 discards the frame because it does not know the destination MAC address.
    • SW1 floods the frame on all ports of SW1 except the port through which the frame entered the switch.

      Answers Explanation & Notes:

      When a switch is powered on, the MAC address table is empty. The switch builds the MAC address table by examining the source MAC address of incoming frames. The switch forwards based on the destination MAC address found in the frame header. If a switch has no entries in the MAC address table, or if the destination MAC address is not in the switch table, the switch forwards the frame to all ports except the port that brought the frame into the switch has.

  • Map the DHCP message types to the order of the DHCPv4 process. (Not all options are used.)

    Answers Explanation & Notes:

    The broadcast DHCPDISCOVER message finds DHCPv4 servers on the network. When the DHCPv4 server receives a DHCPDISCOVER message, it reserves an available IPv4 address to lease to the client and sends the unicast DHCPOFFER message to the requesting client. When the client receives the DHCPOFFER from the server, it sends back a DHCPREQUEST. Upon receiving the DHCPREQUEST message, the server responds with a unicast DHCPPACK message. DHCPREPLY and DHCPINFORMATION-REQUEST are DHCPv6 messages.

    See Also
    CCNA 2 Final Exam V6.0 Answers

  • A network administrator configures a WLAN. Why would the administrator disable the broadcast function for the SSID?

    • to reduce the risk of interference from external devices such as microwave ovens
    • to reduce the risk of unauthorized APs being added to the network
    • Providing privacy and integrity to wireless traffic by using encryption
    • to eliminate outsiders searching for available SSIDs in the area

  • What are the two advantages of using static routes on a router versus dynamic routes? (Choose two.)

    • They automatically change the path to the target network when the topology changes.
    • They improve the efficiency of finding neighboring networks.
    • You use fewer router resources.
    • They improve network security.
    • They take less time to converge when network topology changes.

  • See exhibition. Which route has been configured as a static route to a specific network using the next hop address?

    • S 0.0.0.0/0[1/0] via 10.16.2.2
    • S 10.17.2.0/24 is connected directly, Serial 0/0/0
    • C 10.16.2.0/24 is connected directly, Serial0/0/0
    • S 10.17.2.0/24 [1/0] over 10.16.2.2

      Explanation:

      The C in a routing table indicates an interface that is up and has an IP address assigned. The S in a routing table means that a route was installed using the ip route command. Two of the routing table entries shown are static routes to a specific destination (the 10.17.2.0 network). The entry with the S for a static route and [1/0] was configured with the next hop address. The other entry (S 10.17.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial 0/0/0) is a static route configured through the exit interface. The entry with route 0.0.0.0 is a default static route used to send packets to any destination network not explicitly listed in the routing table.

  • See exhibition. What is the metric to forward a data packet with IPv6 destination address 2001:DB8:ACAD:E:240:BFF:FED4:9DD2?

    • 90
    • 128
    • 2170112
    • 2681856
    • 2682112
    • 3193856

      Explanation:

      The IPv6 destination address 2001:DB8:ACAD:E:240:BFF:FED4:9DD2 belongs to the network 2001:DB8:ACAD:E::/64. In the routing table, the route to forward the packet has Serial 0/0/1 as the output interface and 2682112 as the cost.

  • A static route has been configured on a router. However, the target network no longer exists. What should an administrator do to remove the static route from the routing table?

    • Remove the route with the no ip route command.
    • Change the administrative distance for this route.
    • Nothing. The static route will disappear by itself.
    • Change the routing metric for this route.

  • Which two statements are characteristics of routed ports on a multilayer switch? (Choose two.)​

    • In a switched network, they are most often configured between switches at the core and distribution planes.
    • They are used for point-to-multipoint connections.
    • They are not assigned to a specific VLAN.
    • They support sub-interfaces, such as interfaces on the Cisco IOS routers.
    • The interface vlan <vlan number> command must be entered to create a VLAN on routed ports.

  • See exhibition. After attempting to enter the configuration displayed in Router RTA, an administrator receives an error message and users in VLAN 20 report that they cannot reach users in VLAN 30. What is causing the problem?

    • The no shutdown command should have been issued on Fa0/0.20 and Fa0/0.30.
    • There is no address on Fa0/0 that can be used as the default gateway.
    • Dot1q does not support subinterfaces.
    • RTA uses the same subnet for VLAN 20 and VLAN 30.

  • See exhibition. Which trunk connection does not forward traffic after the root bridge election process is complete?

    • root1
    • Stamm2
    • Stamm3
    • Stamm4

  • A network administrator prepares to deploy Rapid PVST+ on a production network. How are the Rapid PVST+ connection types determined on the switch interfaces?

    • Connection types can only be determined if PortFast has been configured.
    • Connection types can only be configured on access ports configured with a single VLAN.
    • Link types are determined automatically.
    • Link types must be configured using specific port configuration commands.

      Explanation:

      When Rapid PVST+ is implemented, link types are determined automatically but can be specified manually. Connection types can be either point-to-point, shared, or edge.

  • Which two types of spanning tree protocols can cause suboptimal traffic flows because they assume only one spanning tree instance for the entire bridged network? (Choose two.)

    • STP
    • Fast PVST+
    • MSTP
    • PVST+
    • RSTP

  • What action takes place when the source MAC address of a frame entering a switch appears in the MAC address table associated with a different port?

    • The switch clears the entire MAC address table.
    • The switch replaces the old entry and uses the more recent port.
    • The switch updates the update timer for the entry.
    • The switch forwards the frame from the specified port.

  • A network administrator configures port security on a switch. The security policy states that each access port should allow up to two MAC addresses. When the maximum number of MAC addresses is reached, a frame with the unknown source MAC address is dropped and a notification is sent to the syslog server. Which security breach mode should be configured for each access port?

    • warning
    • restrict
    • switch off
    • protection

  • Which network attack does activating BPDU Guard prevent?

    • Rogue switches on a network
    • malicious DHCP servers on a network
    • MAC address spoofing
    • CAM table overflow attacks

      Explanation:

      There are several recommended STP resiliency mechanisms to mitigate against STP manipulation attacks:

      • PortFast – used to instantly transition an interface configured as an access or trunk port from a blocking state to the forwarding state. Applies to all end user ports.
      • BPDU Sentinel - immediately disables a port that receives a BPDU. Applies to all end user ports. Receiving BPDUs may be part of an unauthorized attempt to add a switch to the network.
      • Root Guard - Prevents a switch from becoming the root switch. Applies to all ports where the root switch should not be located.
      • Loop Guard - detects one-way connections to prevent alternate or root ports from becoming designated ports. Applies to all ports that are not or cannot be designated.

  • A network administrator uses the spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default global configuration command to enable BPDU Guard on a switch. However, the BPDU guard is not enabled on all access ports. What is the cause of the problem?

    • PortFast is not configured on all access ports.
    • Access ports belong to different VLANs.
    • The BPDU guard must be enabled in interface configuration command mode.
    • Access ports configured with Root Guard cannot be configured with BPDU Guard.

  • A new Layer 3 switch is connected to a router and configured for InterVLAN routing. Which three of the five steps are required for the configuration? (Choose three.) *

    • Creating SVI interfaces
    • Creating VLANs
    • Installing a static route
    • Adjust route metrics
    • Implement a routing protocol
    • Changing the default VLAN
    • Assign ports to VLANs

  • A company sets up a wireless network at its distribution facility in suburban Boston. The camp is quite large and requires the use of multiple access points. Since some of the corporate devices still operate at 2.4 GHz, the network administrator decides to use the 802.11g standard. Which channel assignments at the multiple access points ensure that the radio channels do not overlap?

    • Channels 1, 6 and 11
    • Channels 2, 6 and 10
    • Channels 1, 5 and 9
    • Channels 1, 7 and 13

  • Which wireless authentication method depends on a RADIUS authentication server?

    • WEP
    • WPA2 company
    • WPA-Personal
    • WPA2 Personal

  • An administrator notices that a large number of packets are being dropped on one of the branch office routers. What to do or check?

    • Create additional static routes to the same location with an AD of 1.
    • Check the routing table for a missing static route.
    • Create static routes to all internal networks and a default route to the Internet.
    • Check the stats on the default route for oversaturation.

  • Match the step number to the sequence of phases that occur during the HSRP failover process. (Not all options are used.)

    Answers Explanation & Notes:

    Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP) is a Cisco proprietary protocol that provides transparent failover of a first-hop IPv4 device.

  • In what situation would a technician use the show switch interfaces command?

    • to determine if remote access is enabled
    • when a terminal can reach local devices but not remote devices
    • to determine the MAC address of a directly connected network device on a specific interface
    • when packets from a specific directly attached host are dropped

      Explanation:

      The show Interfaces command is useful to detect media errors, to see if packets are being sent and received, and to determine if runts, giants, CRCs, interface resets, or other errors have occurred. Remote network reachability issues are likely caused by a misconfigured default gateway or other routing issue, not a switch issue. The show mac address-table command displays the MAC address of a directly attached device.

  • See exhibition. If the default gateway router and DNS server IP addresses are correct, what is the configuration problem?

    • The default-router and dns-server commands must be configured with subnet masks
    • The DNS server and the default gateway router should be on the same subnet.
    • The DNS server IP address is not included in the excluded address list
    • The IP address of the default gateway router is not included in the list of excluded addresses.

      Explanation:

      (Video) CCNA 2 v7.0 Final Exam 100% Answers | Switching, Routing, and Wireless Essentials - SRWE Final Exam

      In this configuration, the excluded address list should contain the address assigned to the default gateway router. So the command should be ip dhcp excluded address 192.168.10.1 192.168.10.9.

  • See exhibition. A network administrator has added a new subnet to the network and needs hosts on that subnet to obtain IPv4 addresses from the DHCPv4 server.

    What two commands allow hosts on the new subnet to get addresses from the DHCP4 server? (Choose two.)

    • R2 (config-if) # auxiliary IP address 10.2.0.250
    • R1(config)# Interface G0/1
    • R1 (config-if) # auxiliary IP address 10.2.0.250
    • R1(config)# Interface G0/0
    • R1 (config-if) # auxiliary IP address 10.1.0.254
    • R2(config)# Interface G0/0

  • See exhibition. R1 has been configured as shown. However, PC1 cannot receive an IPv4 address. What's the problem?​

    • R1 is not configured as a DHCPv4 server
    • A DHCP server must be installed on the same LAN as the host receiving the IP address.
    • The ip helper-address command was applied to the wrong interface.
    • The ip address dhcp command was not issued on interface Gi0/1.

      Explanation:

      The ip helper-address command must be applied to the Gi0/0 interface. This command must be present on the interface of the LAN containing the DHCPv4 client PC1 and must be directed to the correct DHCPv4 server.

  • What network attack attempts to create a DoS for clients by preventing them from obtaining a DHCP lease?

    • CAM Table Attack
    • IP address spoofing
    • DHCP-Spoofing
    • DHCP-Hunger

      Explanation:

      DHCP starvation attacks are launched by an attacker with the intention of creating a DoS on DHCP clients. To achieve this goal, the attacker uses a tool that sends many DHCPDISCOVER messages in order to lease the entire pool of available IP addresses, thus denying them to legitimate hosts.

  • A cybersecurity analyst uses the macof tool to assess configurations of switches deployed in an organization's backbone network. What type of LAN attack is the analyst targeting in this assessment?

    • VLAN-Double-Tagging
    • MAC address table overflow
    • VLAN-Hopping
    • DHCP-Spoofing

  • What information does a switch use to populate the MAC address table?

    • the source MAC address and the incoming port
    • the destination MAC address and the incoming port
    • the source MAC address and the outgoing port
    • the source and destination MAC addresses and the outgoing port
    • the source and destination MAC addresses and the incoming port
    • the destination MAC address and the outgoing port

      Explanation:

      To maintain the MAC address table, the switch uses the source MAC address of the incoming packets and the port where the packets arrive. The destination address is used to select the outgoing port.

  • Which statement describes a result after connecting multiple Cisco LAN switches together?

    • There is one broadcast domain and one collision domain per switch.
    • The broadcast domain extends to all switches.
    • There is one collision domain per switch.
    • Frame collisions are increasing on the segments connecting the switches.

      Explanation:

      In Cisco LAN switches, micro-segmentation allows each port to represent a separate segment, and thus each switch port to represent a separate collision domain. This fact does not change when multiple switches are connected together. However, LAN switches do not filter broadcast frames. A broadcast frame is flooded to all ports. Connected switches form one large broadcast domain.

  • Assign the redirection characteristic to its type. (Not all options are used.)

  • Which method of IPv6 prefix assignment is based on the prefix contained in RA messages?

    • EUI-64
    • Stateful DHCPv6
    • static
    • SLAAC

  • On a Cisco 3504 WLC summary page ( Advanced > Summary ), which tab allows a network administrator to configure a specific wireless network with a WPA2 policy?

    • MANAGEMENT
    • WLANs
    • SECURITY
    • WIRELESS

  • A network administrator at a small advertising company uses WPA2-PSK to configure wireless security. What access data do office users need to connect their laptop to the WLAN?

    • a key that matches the key on the AP
    • a username and password configured on the AP
    • a user passphrase
    • the company username and password through the Active Directory service

  • Which two default wireless router settings can compromise network security? (Choose two.)

    • The SSID is broadcast.
    • MAC address filtering is enabled.
    • WEP encryption is enabled.
    • The radio channel is selected automatically.
    • A well-known administrator password is set.

      Explanation:

      Default settings on wireless routers often include broadcasting the SSID and using a known administrator password. Both pose security risks for wireless networks. WEP encryption and MAC address filtering are not set by default. The automatic selection of the radio channel does not pose any security risks.

  • See exhibition. Based on the configuration and output shown, why is VLAN 99 missing?

    • because there is a cabling problem at VLAN 99
    • because VLAN 1 is active and there can only be one management VLAN on the switch
    • because VLAN 99 has not yet been created
    • because VLAN 99 is not a valid management VLAN

  • What three pairs of trunking modes produce a working trunk connection between two Cisco switches? (Choose three.)

    • Access - trunk
    • dynamic car - dynamic car
    • dynamically desirable – dynamically desirable
    • dynamic desired – dynamic auto
    • dynamically desired – proboscis
    • Access – dynamic auto

  • What three steps should be taken before moving a Cisco switch to a new VTP management domain? (Choose three.)

    • Reset the VTP counters to allow the switch to synchronize with the other switches in the domain.
    • Download the VTP database from the VTP server in the new domain.
    • Select the correct VTP mode and version.
    • Reboot the switch.
    • Configure the VTP server in the domain to recognize the new switch's BID.
    • Configure the switch with the new management domain name.

      Explanation:

      When adding a new switch to a VTP domain, it is important to configure the switch with a new domain name, correct VTP mode, VTP version number, and password. A switch with a higher revision number can propagate invalid VLANs and delete valid VLANs, preventing connectivity for multiple devices on the valid VLANs.

  • Select the three PAgP channel setup modes. (Choose three.)

    • active
    • passive
    • desirable
    • An
    • Auto
    • blocking

  • See exhibition. What static route command can be entered on R1 to route traffic to the LAN connected to R2?

    • IPv6-Route 2001:db8:12:10::/64 S0/0/0 fe80::2
    • IPv6-Route 2001:db8:12:10::/64 S0/0/1 fe80::2
    • IPv6-Route 2001:db8:12:10::/64 S0/0/1 2001:db8:12:10::1
    • IPv6-Route 2001:db8:12:10::/64 S0/0/0

  • See exhibition. R1 has been configured with the static route command ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 S0/0/0 and consequently users on the 172.16.0.0/16 network cannot reach resources on the internet. How should this static route be modified to allow user traffic from the LAN to reach the internet?

    • Add the next hop neighbor address 209.165.200.226.
    • Change the target network and mask to 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0.
    • Change the exit interface to S0/0/1.
    • Add an administrative distance of 254.

      Explanation:

      The static route on R1 was incorrectly configured with the wrong destination network and mask. The correct target network and mask is 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0.

  • See exhibition. Currently router R1 uses an EIGRP route learned from Branch2 to reach the 10.10.0.0/16 network. What static floating route would create a backup route to the 10.10.0.0/16 network in case the link between R1 and Branch2 fails?

    • IP Route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 Serial 0/0/0 100
    • IP-Route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 209.165.200.226 100
    • IP-Route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 209.165.200.225 100
    • IP-Route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 209.165.200.225 50

      Explanation:

      A floating static route must have an administrative distance greater than the administrative distance of the active route in the routing table. Router R1 uses an EIGRP route with an administrative distance of 90 to reach the 10.10.0.0/16 network. To be a backup route, the floating static route must have an administrative distance greater than 90 and a next-hop address that matches the IP address of Branch1's serial port.

  • See exhibition. A network engineer configures IPv6 routing on the network. Which command issued on Router HQ configures a default route to the Internet to forward packets to a destination IPv6 network not listed in the routing table?​

    • ipv6 route ::/0 serial 0/1/1
    • IPv6 route ::1/0 serial 0/1/1
    • IPv6 route ::/0 serial 0/0/0
    • ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/1/1

  • What protocol or technology does a standby router use to take responsibility for packet forwarding if the active router fails?

    • HSRP
    • EtherChannel
    • VTP
    • DTP

  • What is the effect of entering the ip arp inspection vlan 10 configuration command on a switch?

    • It enables DHCP snooping globally on a switch.
    • It specifies the maximum number of L2 addresses allowed on a port.
    • It enables DAI on specific switch interfaces previously configured with DHCP snooping.
    • It globally enables BPDU protection on all PortFast-enabled ports.

  • See exhibition. A network administrator checks the configuration of switch S1. Which protocol was implemented to combine multiple physical ports into one logical connection?

    • DTP
    • LACP
    • PAgP
    • STP

  • Successful inter-VLAN routing has worked for some time in a network with multiple VLANs across multiple switches. When a trunk link between switches fails and the Spanning Tree Protocol establishes a backup trunk link, hosts in two VLANs are reported to be able to access some, but not all, network resources that were previously accessible. Hosts in all other VLANS do not have this problem. What is the most likely cause of this problem?

    • The allowed VLANs on the backup link have not been properly configured.
    • The protected edge port feature on the backup trunk interfaces has been disabled.
    • The dynamic trunking protocol on the link failed.
    • Inter-VLAN routing also failed when the trunk link failed.

  • See exhibition. An administrator tries to install an IPv6 static route on router R1 to reach the network attached to router R2. After entering the static route command, the connection to the network still fails. What mistake was made in static route configuration?

    • The interface is wrong.
    • The next hop address is incorrect.
    • The network prefix is ​​incorrect.
    • The destination network is incorrect.

      Answers Explanation & Notes:

      In this example, the interface in the static route is incorrect. The interface should be the exit interface on R1, so s0/0/0.

  • What protocol or technology does the source IP to destination IP use as a load balancing mechanism?

    • EtherChannel
    • VTP
    • STP
    • DTP

  • See exhibition. Router R1 has an OSPF neighbor relationship with the ISP router over the 192.168.0.32 network. The network connection 192.168.0.36 should serve as a backup if the OSPF connection fails. The floating static route command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/1 100 was issued on R1 and now the traffic uses the backup connection even if the OSPF connection is up and working. What change should be made to the static route command so that traffic only uses the OSPF link when it is up?​

    • Change the administrative distance to 120.
    • Change the administrative distance to 1.
    • Add the next hop neighbor address 192.168.0.36.
    • Change the target network to 192.168.0.34.

      Answers Explanation & Notes:

      (Video) SRWE Final Exam (CCNA 2 version 7.00)

      The problem with the current floating static route is that the administrative distance is set too low. The administrative distance must be higher than that of OSPF, which is 110, so that the router only uses the OSPF connection when it is active.

  • What kind of static route is configured with greater administrative distance to provide a backup route to a route learned from a dynamic routing protocol?

    • static default route
    • default static route
    • floating static route
    • summary static route

      Explanation:

      There are four basic types of static routes. Floating static routes are backup routes that are inserted into the routing table when a primary route is lost. A summary static route combines multiple routes into one, reducing the routing table. Static standard routes are routes entered manually in the routing table. Static default routes create a gateway of last resort.

  • Which option shows a properly configured default IPv4 static route?

    • IP-Route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/0
    • IP-Route 0.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 S0/0/0
    • IP-Route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 S0/0/0
    • IP-Route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 S0/0/0

      Explanation:

      The static route ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/0 is considered the default static route and matches all target networks.

  • Which command starts the process of bonding two physical interfaces to create an EtherChannel group over LACP?

    • Channel group 2 mode auto
    • Channel group 1 mode desirable
    • Interface port-channel 2
    • Interface range GigabitEthernet 0/4 – 5

      Answers Explanation & Notes:

      To specify the interfaces in an EtherChannel team, use the interface range interface global configuration command for the interface range being used. The interface range GigabitEthernet 0/4 – 5 command is the correct option because it specifies two interfaces for the EtherChannel group.

  • What would be the main reason why an attacker would launch a MAC address overflow attack?

    • to allow the attacker to run arbitrary code on the switch
    • for the switch to stop forwarding traffic
    • so the attacker can see frames destined for other hosts
    • so that legitimate hosts cannot obtain a MAC address

  • What is a method to launch a VLAN hopping attack?

    • Introduction of a rogue switch and activation of trunking
    • Flooding the switch with MAC addresses
    • Sending spoofed IP addresses from the attacking host
    • Sending fake native VLAN information

  • See exhibition. All switches shown are Cisco 2960 switches with the same default priority and operating at the same bandwidth. Which three ports will be STP designated ports? (Choose three.)

    • fa0/21
    • fa0/10
    • fa0/13
    • fa0/9
    • fa0/20
    • fa0/11

  • What is the general term for SNMP log messages generated by network devices and sent to the SNMP server?

    • Fallen
    • audit
    • confirmations
    • warnings

  • A technician troubleshoots a slow Wi-Fi network and decides to take a split-the-traffic approach. Which two parameters would have to be configured for this? (Choose two.)

    • Configure the 2.4 GHz band for basic Internet traffic that is not time-sensitive.
    • Configure the security mode for both networks to WPA Personal TKIP/AES.
    • Configure the security mode for one network to WPA Personal TKIP/AES and for the other network to WPA2 Personal AES
    • Configure a common SSID for both split networks.
    • Configure the 5 GHz band for streaming multimedia and time-sensitive traffic.

  • A corporate security policy requires that all MAC addresses be dynamically learned and added to both the MAC address table and the running configuration on each switch. What port security configuration will achieve this?

    • automatically secure MAC addresses
    • dynamic secure MAC addresses
    • static secure MAC addresses
    • sticky secure MAC addresses

      Answers Explanation & Notes:

      With Sticky Secure MAC addressing, MAC addresses can either be learned dynamically or configured manually and then stored in the address table and added to the running configuration file. In contrast, dynamic secure MAC addressing provides dynamically learned MAC addressing that is only stored in the address table.

  • What is the IPv6 prefix used for link-local addresses?

    • FE80::/10
    • FF01::/8
    • FC00::/7
    • 2001::/3

  • What action takes place when a frame entering a switch has a unicast destination MAC address that is not in the MAC address table?

    • The switch resets the refresh timer for all MAC address table entries.
    • The switch updates the update timer for the entry.
    • The switch replaces the old entry and uses the more recent port.
    • The switch forwards the frame through all ports except the incoming port.

  • A new switch is to be added to an existing network in a remote office. The network administrator does not want the technicians in the remote office to be able to add new VLANs to the switch, but the switch should receive VLAN updates from the VTP domain. What two steps must be taken to configure VTP on the new switch to meet these conditions? (Choose two.)

    • Configure the existing VTP domain name on the new switch.
    • Configure all ports of both switches for access mode.
    • Enable VTP cleaning.
    • Configure an IP address on the new switch.
    • Configure the new switch as a VTP client.

  • See exhibition. Given that port Fa0/4 on both switches is configured to carry traffic for multiple VLANs, which three hosts will receive ARP requests from Host A? (Choose three.)

    • host F
    • host B
    • host d
    • host G
    • host c
    • host E

      Explanation:

      ARP requests are sent as broadcasts. This means that the ARP request is only sent over a specific VLAN. VLAN 1 hosts only listen to ARP requests from hosts on VLAN 1. VLAN 2 hosts only listen to ARP requests from hosts on VLAN 2.

  • A technician configures a router for a small business with multiple wireless networks and doesn't need the complexity of a dynamic routing protocol. What to do or check?

    • Check the configuration on the floating static route and adjust the AD.
    • Create a floating static route to this network.
    • Ensure that there is no default route in any of the edge router routing tables.
    • Create static routes to all internal networks and a default route to the Internet.

  • What two functions does a WLC take on when using Split Media Access Control (MAC)? (Choose two.)

    • Packet Acknowledgments and Retransmissions
    • Frame translation to other protocols
    • Association and reassociation of roaming clients
    • Beacons and Probe Responses
    • Frame queuing and packet prioritization

  • See exhibition. A network administrator has configured routers R1 and R2 as part of HSRP Group 1. After the routers were reloaded, a user on Host1 complained about a lack of connection to the internet. The network administrator issued the show standby short command on both routers to verify HSRP operations. The administrator also observed the ARP table on Host1. What entry should you see in the ARP table on Host1 to connect to the internet?

    • the IP address and MAC address of R1
    • the virtual IP address of HSRP group 1 and the MAC address of R1
    • the virtual IP address of HSRP group 1 and the MAC address of R2
    • the virtual IP address and virtual MAC address for HSRP group 1

      Explanation:

      Hosts send an ARP request to the default gateway, which is the virtual IP address. ARP replies from the HSRP routers contain the virtual MAC address. The host ARP tables contain a virtual IP to virtual MAC mapping.

  • A network administrator configures a new Cisco switch for remote management access. What three items need to be configured on the switch for the task? (Choose three.)

    • IP Address
    • Standard-Gateway
    • Standard-VLAN
    • vty lines
    • VTP-Domain
    • Loopback-Adresse

      Explanation:

      To enable remote management access, the Cisco switch must be configured with an IP address and default gateway. Also, vty lines must be configured to allow either Telnet or SSH connections. A loopback address, default VLAN, and VTP domain configurations are not required for remote switch management.

  • See exhibition. What can be concluded from the configuration shown on R1?

    • R1 is configured as a DHCPv4 relay agent.
    • R1 sends a message to a local DHCPv4 client to contact a DHCPv4 server at 10.10.10.8.
    • R1 sends out DHCPv4 requests on behalf of local DHCPv4 clients.
    • R1 works as a DHCPv4 server.

  • What action does a DHCPv4 client take when receiving more than one DHCPOFFER from multiple DHCP servers?

    • It sends a DHCPREQUEST indicating which lease offer the client will accept.
    • It sends out a DHCPNAK and starts the DHCP process again.
    • It accepts both DHCPOFFER messages and sends a DHCPACK.
    • It discards both offers and sends a new DHCPDISCOVER.

  • Which protocol should be disabled to mitigate VLAN attacks?

    • STP
    • CDP
    • DTP
    • ARP

  • Why is DHCP snooping required when using the Dynamic ARP Inspection feature?

    • It uses MAC address table to check default gateway IP address.
    • It redirects ARP requests to the DHCP server for inspection.
    • It relies on trusted and untrusted port settings determined by DHCP snooping.
    • It uses MAC address to IP address binding database to validate an ARP packet.

      Explanation:

      DAI is based on DHCP snooping. DHCP snooping monitors the exchange of DHCP messages and creates a binding database of valid tuples (MAC address, IP address, VLAN interface).

      When DAI is enabled, the switch drops the ARP packet if the sender MAC address and sender IP address do not match an entry in the DHCP snooping bindings database. However, it can be overcome by static mappings. Static mappings are useful when hosts are configuring static IP addresses, DHCP snooping cannot be performed, or other switches on the network are not performing dynamic ARP inspection. A static mapping maps an IP address to a MAC address on a VLAN.

  • To get an overview of the spanning tree status of a switched network, a network engineer issues the show spanning-tree command at a switch. What two pieces of information does this command display? (Choose two.)

    • The role of ports in all VLANs.
    • Die Root-Bridge-BID.
    • The number of broadcasts received on each root port.
    • The IP address of the management VLAN interface.
    • Der Status nativer VLAN-Ports.

  • A WLAN engineer deploys a WLC and five wireless APs using CAPWAP protocol with DTLS function to secure the control plane of network devices. When testing the wireless network, the WLAN engineer finds that the data traffic between the WLC and the APs is exchanged in plain text and is not encrypted. What is the most likely reason for this?

    • DTLS only provides data security through authentication and does not provide encryption for data transmitted between a Wireless LAN Controller (WLC) and an Access Point (AP).
    • Data encryption requires the installation of a DTLS license on each access point (AP) before being activated on the wireless LAN controller (WLC).
    • Although DTLS is enabled by default to secure the CAPWAP control channel, it is disabled by default for the data channel.
    • DTLS is a protocol that only provides security between the Access Point (AP) and the wireless client.

      Explanation:

      DTLS is a protocol that provides security between the AP and the WLC. It enables them to communicate in encrypted form and prevents eavesdropping or tampering.
      DTLS is enabled by default to secure the CAPWAP control channel but disabled by default for the data channel. All CAPWAP management and control traffic exchanged between an AP and WLC is encrypted and secured by default to ensure control plane privacy and prevent Man-In-the-Middle (MITM) attacks.

  • See exhibition. The network administrator configures both switches as shown. However, Host C cannot ping Host D and Host E cannot ping Host F. What actions should the admin take to enable this communication?

    • Assign hosts A and B to VLAN 10 instead of VLAN 1.
    • Configure one of the trunk ports in dynamically desirable mode.
    • Add switchport nonegotiate command to configure SW2.
    • Include a router in the topology.
    • Remove the native VLAN from the trunk.

  • What action takes place if the source MAC address of a frame entering a switch is not in the MAC address table?

    • The switch replaces the old entry and uses the more recent port.
    • The switch adds a MAC address table entry for the destination MAC address and egress port.
    • The switch updates the update timer for the entry.
    • The switch adds the MAC address and incoming port number to the table.

  • A technician configures a wireless network for a small business using a SOHO wireless router. What two authentication methods are used when the router is configured with WPA2? (Choose two.) **

    • AES
    • TKIP
    • personal
    • WEP
    • Pursue

  • A network administrator adds a new WLAN on a Cisco 3500 Series WLC. On which tab should the admin create a new VLAN interface to be used for the new WiFi?

    • WLANs
    • RULES
    • WIRELESS
    • MANAGEMENT

  • See exhibition. What two conclusions can be drawn from the output? (Choose two.)

    • The port channel ID is 2.
    • The bundle is fully functional.
    • The port channel is a layer 3 channel.
    • The load balancing method used is source port to destination port.
    • The EtherChannel is down.

  • Which three statements accurately describe the duplex and speed settings on Cisco 2960 switches? (Choose three.)

    • By default, the speed is set to 100 Mb/s and the duplex mode is set to autonegotiation.
    • Auto-negotiation failure can cause connectivity issues.
    • The duplex and speed settings of each switch port can be configured manually.
    • When the speed is set to 1000 Mb/s, the switch ports operate in full duplex mode.
    • By default, the autonegotiation function is disabled.
    • Enabling auto-negotiation on a hub prevents mismatched port speeds when connecting the hub to the switch.

  • See exhibition. A Layer 3 switch routes for three VLANs and connects to a router for internet connectivity. What two configurations would be applied to the switch? (Choose two.)

    • (config)# interface fastethernet0/4
      (config-if)# Trunk im Switchport-Modus
    • (config)# Interface VLAN 1
      (config-if)# IP-Adresse 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.0
      (config-if)# no shutdown
    • (config)# IP-Routing
    • (config)# Interface gigabit ethernet 1/1
      (config-if)# kein Switchport
      (config-if)# IP-Adresse 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.252
    • (config)# interface Gigabitethernet1/1
      (config-if)# Trunk im Switchport-Modus

  • See exhibition. Note that main power has just been restored. PC3 issues a broadcast IPv4 DHCP request. To which port does SW1 forward this request?​

    • only to Fa0/1​
    • only on Fa0/1, Fa0/2 and Fa0/4
    • to Fa0/1, Fa0/2, Fa0/3 and Fa0/4
    • only on Fa0/1, Fa0/2 and Fa0/3
    • only on Fa0/1 and Fa0/2

  • Which statement about how a Layer 2 switch determines how frames are forwarded is correct?

    • Only frames with a broadcast destination address are forwarded to all active switch ports.
    • Frame forwarding decisions are based on MAC address and port mappings in the CAM table.
    • Cut-through frame forwarding ensures that invalid frames are always discarded.
    • Unicast frames are always forwarded regardless of the destination MAC address.

      Explanation:

      Cut-through frame forwarding only reads up to the first 22 bytes of a frame, eliminating the frame check sequence and therefore possibly forwarding invalid frames. In addition to broadcast frames, frames with a destination MAC address not present in the CAM are also flooded through all active ports. Unicast frames are not always forwarded. Received frames with a destination MAC address associated with the switch port on which they are received are not forwarded because the destination exists on the network segment connected to that port.

      (Video) CCNA v7.02 SRWE Packet Tracer Skills Assessment PTSA

  • Employees cannot connect to servers on any of the internal networks. What to do or check?

    • Use the show ip interface brief command to see if an interface is down.
    • Ensure that there is no default route in any of the edge router routing tables.
    • Check the stats on the default route for oversaturation.
    • Create static routes to all internal networks and a default route to the Internet.

  • What protocol or technology requires switches in server or client mode?

    • VTP
    • EtherChannel
    • HSRP
    • DTP

  • What does entering the shutdown configuration command do on a switch?

    • It disables an unused port.
    • It enables portfast on a specific switch interface.
    • It disables DTP on a non-trunking interface.
    • It enables BPDU protection on a specific port.

  • What else is required when configuring a static IPv6 route with a link-local next-hop address? **

    • Network number and subnet mask on the interface of the neighboring router
    • IP address of the neighboring router
    • Interface number and type
    • administrative distance

  • A junior engineer added a route to a LAN router. A traceroute to a device on the new network returned an incorrect path and unreachable status. What to do or check?

    • Ensure that there is no default route in any of the edge router routing tables.
    • Create a floating static route to this network.
    • Check the configuration on the floating static route and adjust the AD.
    • Check the exit interface configuration on the new static route.

  • A network technician troubleshoots a newly deployed wireless network that uses the latest 802.11 standards. When users access high-bandwidth services such as B. video streaming, wireless network performance is poor. To improve performance, the network engineer decides to configure a 5 GHz frequency band SSID and train users to use that SSID for streaming media services. Why could this solution improve wireless network performance for this type of service?

    • The 5GHz band has more channels and is less crowded than the 2.4GHz band, making it better suited for streaming multimedia.
    • The only users who can switch to the 5GHz band are those with the latest wireless NICs, which reduces usage.
    • Requiring users to switch to the 5GHz band to stream media is impractical and results in fewer users accessing these services.
    • The 5GHz band has a longer range and is therefore likely to be free of interference.

      Answers Explanation & Notes:

      The radio range is determined by the antenna and the output power of the access point, not by the frequency band used. This scenario states that all users have wireless NICs that comply with the latest standard, and thus all have access to the 5 GHz band. Although some users find it inconvenient to switch to the 5GHz band to access streaming services, the larger number of channels, rather than just fewer users, improves network performance.

  • On which switch ports should BPDU Guard be enabled to improve STP stability?

    • only ports selected as designated ports
    • only ports connected to a neighboring switch
    • all PortFast-enabled ports
    • all trunk ports that are not root ports

  • How does a router handle static routing differently when Cisco Express Forwarding is disabled?

    • Point-to-point serial interfaces require fully specified static routes to avoid routing inconsistencies.
    • No recursive searches are performed.
    • Static routes using an exit interface become unnecessary.
    • Ethernet multiaccess interfaces require fully specified static routes to avoid routing inconsistencies.

  • Which protocol or technology allows data to be transmitted over redundant switch connections?

    • STP
    • VTP
    • EtherChannel
    • DTP

  • A PC sent an RS message to an IPv6 router connected to the same network. What two pieces of information does the router send to the client? (Choose two.)

    • prefix
    • domain name
    • Subnet mask in dotted decimal notation
    • administrative distance
    • IP-Adresse des DNS-Servers
    • prefix length

      Answers Explanation & Notes:

      The router is part of the IPv6 All Routers group and received the RS message. It generates an RA containing the local network prefix and prefix length (e.g. 2001:db8:acad:1::/64)

  • What two VTP modes allow creating, modifying and deleting VLANs on the local switch? (Choose two.)

    • distribution
    • Meister
    • Server
    • Client
    • transparent
    • slave

  • See exhibition. What does router R1 do with a packet with destination IPv6 address 2001:db8:cafe:5::1?

    • forward the packet GigabitEthernet0/0
    • Forward the packet to Serial0/0/0
    • forward the packet GigabitEthernet0/1
    • drop the package

      Answers Explanation & Notes:

      The route ::/0 is the condensed form of the default route 0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000/0. The default route is used when no more specific route is found in the routing table.

  • What is a disadvantage of local database method of securing device access that can be solved by using AAA with centralized servers?

    • There is no possibility of accountability.
    • It is very vulnerable to brute force attacks as there is no username.
    • The passwords can only be saved in plain text in the running configuration.
    • User accounts must be configured locally on each device, which is a non-scalable authentication solution.

      Answers Explanation & Notes:

      The local database method of securing device access uses usernames and passwords that are configured locally on the router. This allows administrators to track who logged into the device and when. The passwords can also be encrypted in the configuration. However, the account information must be configured on each device that account should have access to, making this solution very difficult to scale.

  • What three Wi-Fi standards operate in the 2.4 GHz frequency range? (Choose three.)

    • 802.11ac
    • 802.11a
    • 802.11n
    • 802.11b
    • 802.11g

  • Which command creates a static route on R2 to reach PC B?

    • R2(config)# IP-Route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254
    • R2(config)# IP-Route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1
    • R2(config)# IP-Route 172.16.2.1 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1
    • R2(config)# IP-Route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254

      Answers Explanation & Notes:

      The correct syntax is:
      router(config)# ip route destinationnetwork destinationmask {next-hop-ip-address | exit interface}
      If the local exit interface is used instead of the next-hop IP address, the route appears as a directly connected route instead of a static route in the routing table. Since the network to reach is 172.16.2.0 and the next hop IP address is 172.16.3.1, the command is R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1

  • What is the effect of entering the configuration command to access switchport mode on a switch?

    • It disables DTP on a non-trunking interface.
    • It disables an unused port.
    • It manually activates a trunk connection.
    • It enables BPDU protection on a specific port.

  • See exhibition. Which statement shown in the output allows router R1 to respond to stateless DHCPv6 requests?

    • ipv6 and other configuration flag​
    • IPv6-DHCP-Server LAN1​
    • Prefix delegation 2001:DB8:8::/48 00030001000E84244E70
    • IPv6-Unicast-Routing
    • DNS-Server 2001:DB8:8::8​

      Answers Explanation & Notes:

      The ipv6 nd other-config-flag interface command allows RA messages to be sent on this interface indicating that additional information is available from a stateless DHCPv6 server.

  • See exhibition. The network administrator configures the port security feature on the switch SWC. The administrator has issued the show port-security interface fa 0/2 command to verify the configuration. What can be concluded from the shown output? (Choose three.)

    • The port is configured as a trunk link.
    • This port is currently active.
    • The switch port mode for this interface is access mode.
    • Three security violations were detected on this interface.
    • No device is currently connected to this port.
    • In the event of a security breach, this port will be closed immediately.

  • What are two reasons a network administrator should segment a network with a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two.)

    • to isolate ARP request messages from the rest of the network
    • to create more broadcast domains
    • increase user bandwidth
    • to eliminate virtual circuits
    • to create fewer collision domains
    • Isolate traffic between segments

      Answers Explanation & Notes:

      A switch has the ability to create temporary point-to-point connections between directly attached sending and receiving network devices. The two devices have full-bandwidth, full-duplex connectivity during transmission.

  • What action takes place when a frame entering a switch has a unicast destination MAC address that appears in the MAC address table?

    • The switch resets the refresh timer for all MAC address table entries.
    • The switch forwards the frame from the specified port.
    • The switch updates the update timer for the entry.
    • The switch forwards the frame through all ports except the incoming port.

  • A network administrator uses the router-on-a-stick model to configure a switch and router for inter-VLAN routing. What configuration should be done on the switch port that connects to the router?

    • Configure the port as a trunk port and assign it to VLAN1.
    • Configure it as a trunk port and allow only untagged traffic.
    • Configure the port as an 802.1q trunk port.
    • Configure the port as an access port and member of VLAN1.

      Answers Explanation & Notes:

      The port on the switch that connects to the router interface should be configured as a trunk port. Once it becomes a trunk port, it does not belong to any particular VLAN and forwards traffic from different VLANs.

  • What does entering the switchport port-security configuration command do on a switch?

    • It enables port security globally on the switch.
    • It dynamically learns the L2 address and copies it into the running configuration.
    • It limits the number of discovery messages per second received on the interface.
    • It enables port security on an interface.

  • Users on a LAN cannot access a corporate web server, but can get elsewhere. What to do or check?

    • Ensure that the old default route has been removed from the corporate edge routers.
    • Make sure the static route to the server exists in the routing table.
    • Create a floating static route to this network.
    • Check the configuration on the floating static route and adjust the AD.

  • See exhibition. A network administrator configures router R1 for IPv6 address assignment. Based on the partial configuration, what IPv6 global unicast address allocation scheme does the administrator intend to implement?

    • manual configuration
    • civic
    • stateless
    • SLAAC

  • Match the step of each description to the switch boot sequence. (Not all options are used.)

    Answers Explanation & Notes:

    The steps are:
    1. Run POST
    2. Load the bootloader from the ROM
    3. CPU register initializations
    4. Flash file system initialization
    5. Load the IOS
    6. Passing control of the switch to the IOS

  • What protocol or technology disables redundant paths to eliminate Layer 2 loops?

    • EtherChannel
    • DTP
    • STP
    • VTP

  • When is authorization performed during the AAA process?

    • immediately after determining which resources a user can access
    • immediately after an AAA client has sent authentication information to a central server
    • immediately after AAA Accounting and Auditing receives detailed reports
    • immediately after successful authentication against an AAA data source

      Answers Explanation & Notes:

      (Video) CCNA 2 SRWE Final PT Skills Assessment PTSA

      AAA authorization is implemented immediately after the user is authenticated against a specific AAA data source.

  • What two protocols are used to provide server-based AAA authentication? (Choose two.)

    • TACACS+
    • RADIUS
    • SNMP
    • 802.1x
    • SSH

    • FAQs

    What is Cisco CCNA 2 switching routing and wireless essentials? ›

    Switching, Routing and Wireless Essentials is the second of three Cisco Networking Academy courses that are aligned to the CCNA Certification Exam 200-301. Switching, Routing, and Wireless Essentials advance your knowledge of the operation of routers and switches in small networks.

    View Details ›
    What is SRWE Cisco? ›

    CCNAv7: Switching, Routing, and Wireless Essentials (SRWE) covers the architecture, components, and operations of routers and switches in small networks and introduces wireless local area networks (WLAN) and security concepts.

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    What three steps would help to secure a home or small business wireless router choose three options to score? ›

    If you must rely on a wireless router to manage and secure your network, then follow these steps to lock it down:
    • Update the firmware. ...
    • Require a password. ...
    • Change the SSID. ...
    • Enable MAC address filtering. ...
    • Disable remote administration. ...
    • Enable router firewall. ...
    • Disable all guest networks.
    Jul 31, 2014

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    What questions are on the CCNA? ›

    The following are 50 questions that are commonly asked during a CCNA interview:
    • What is routing?
    • What is the advantage of using switches?
    • What are the two types of IP addresses?
    • What do OSI layers mean?
    • What is the purpose of the Data Link layer?
    • What does a Window mean in networking?
    • What causes network congestion?
    Feb 25, 2020

    Tell Me More ›
    How do I pass my CCNA routing and switching? ›

    5 Study Tips to Pass the CCNA Certification Exam
    1. Get Practical Experience.
    2. Obtain the Proper Study Materials.
    3. Schedule Practice Tests.
    4. Refresh Your Knowledge Right Before the Exam.
    5. Take a Breather.
    Jan 19, 2023

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    Is CCNA routing and switching worth it? ›

    The Benefits of CCNA Certification

    You will enhance your skills with Cisco networking as well, which will help you in your profession. You may use this understanding to master the complex concepts of monitoring and correcting a network outage. You will grasp the fundamentals of networking after you pass the CCNA exam.

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    How much can you make with CCNA? ›

    CCNA Salary

    The average yearly compensation for a technical professional with a CCNA certification in the U.S. is $89,020 as of June 8, 2022. If you need a quick salary calculation, it comes to around $42.80 per hour.

    Get More Info Here ›
    Is CCNA routing and switching same as CCNA? ›

    CCNA&CCNA R&S

    The term CCNA in Networking may be utilized as an umbrella term for the associate degree training in the training courses used by Cisco while CCNA in Routing & Switching defines a prospect of being accredited at associate degree training in route and buttons.

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    What are the four modes in Cisco? ›

    There are five command modes: global configuration mode, interface configuration mode, subinterface configuration mode, router configuration mode, and line configuration mode.

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    What are the three 3 categories of routers? ›

    There are five main types of routers in the market according to the application category. They are wired routers, wireless routers, core routers, edge routers and VPN routers.

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    What are three 3 of the most secure methods that should be used to secure a small wireless network? ›

    The Three Primary Ways that Most People Protect their Network: Leaving the WiFi access open, but requiring a VPN connection to access anything important. Protecting the WiFi network with a single password or passphrase. Protecting the WiFi network on a per user basis.

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    What are 3 types of wireless attacks specific to wireless networks? ›

    The most common types of wireless network attacks are the following: packet sniffing. rogue access points. Wi-Fi phishing and evil twins.

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    How many people fail the CCNA? ›

    Most people who take the CCNA exam consider it to be incredibly difficult, and as many as 95% of test-takers fail it on their first attempt. Make no mistake that it's hard: Even people with relevant degrees and many who have taken CCNA certification classes still have to retake the test several times.

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    What is CCNA passing score? ›

    Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) Exam Guide : Total Questions : 60. Passing Score : 800 .

    Read On ›
    What is the passing score for CCNA 2023? ›

    Candidate needs to score at least 80% to pass, and the CCNA certification is valid for 3 years.

    Read On ›
    How do I know if I passed CCNA? ›

    On a related note, your exam results and your official certification status, will be posted in your Certification Tracking System profile. This is an important tool to keep track of your exam history and certification status. If you haven't done so already, you will receive an email to access this profile.

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    Can CCNA get me a job? ›

    The CCNA (Cisco Certified Network Associate) is one of the most recognized and accepted information technology certifications in the computer networking industry today. Developed and promoted by Cisco Systems, the CCNA certification is considered a tool to gain entry-level jobs.

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    Is CCNA difficult to pass? ›

    The CCNA exam is among the most challenging on the market. It will test the students on their ability to build a network using Cisco technology during the test. The test covers various topics, but the main focus is on switching and routing data packets.

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    Is CCNA still worth IT in 2023? ›

    You can easily enroll for a CCNA course today. It would be totally worth it. Cisco devices are used in almost every organization. If you learn how to work with the Cisco routers, you are good to go.

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    Is CCNA harder than Network+? ›

    CCNA Routing and Switching is a Cisco-specific networking certification. While it is still considered a beginner-level certification, most professionals consider it to be significantly more challenging than the CompTIA Network+ exam.

    View Details ›

    Is the new CCNA exam harder? ›

    In general, the new CCNA is shaping up to be harder than the old CCNA. The changes require that you have a wider knowledge base. Previously, you could ease your way into CCNA Routing & Switching by starting off with a CCENT (retired Feb 24, 2020) to get you into the CCNA Routing & Switching.

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    Does CCNA expire? ›

    Your certification is valid for three years after your date of issue. To recertify before your certificate's expiration date, you must satisfy several recertification criteria. You don't have to do anything to keep your CCNA certification active. Cisco is known for making frequent changes to its certification program.

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    What is the highest paying Cisco certification? ›

    Top-paying certifications
    1. CCDA: Cisco Certified Design Associate — $120,139. CCDA validates the network design skills required to create an enterprise network. ...
    2. CCNP Routing and Switching — $108,646. ...
    3. CCNA Routing and Switching — $101,441. ...
    4. CCNA Security — $101,411. ...
    5. CCENT: Cisco Certified Entry Networking Technician — $83,057.

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    Is Cisco getting rid of CCNA? ›

    While Cisco hasn't announced an official timeframe for the current CCNA retirement, we can assume the 200-301 CCNA exam will be retired sometime in 2024 if the new exam is released in summer or fall of 2023.

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    Which is better Cisco or CCNA? ›

    The CCNP certification is considered the more senior out of these two Cisco certification levels, considering that it delves much more in-depth and broader into the workings of networking and its associated content such as security and wireless options than the CCNA.

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    What replaces CCNP routing and switching? ›

    The CCNP Enterprise certification has replaced the CCNP Routing and Switching certification. To earn the CCNP Enterprise, candidates will need to pass just two exams: a core exam and an enterprise concentration exam of their choice.

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    What are the 3 modes in Cisco? ›

    Cisco has at least 3 main command line modes: user EXEC mode, privileged EXEC mode, and global configuration mode. Of course there are other more specific modes such as interface configuration mode, extended ACL configuration mode, routing/VLAN configuration mode, etc.

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    What are the 3 CLI modes? ›

    - [Instructor] The Cisco Inner Operating System, the IOS has three command line modes, User EXEC mode, or user mode, Privileged EXEC mode, or privileged mode, and then the Global Configuration mode.

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    What are the 3 lights on router? ›

    The lights on your router or modem represent the equipment's different functions. These lights may vary between different types, brands, and models of equipment, but most have at least a power light, an upstream/downstream light, and an internet/WAN light.

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    What are the four 4 requirements to protect and secure the server rooms? ›

    4 Best Practices For A Secure Server Room
    • Backup Data Regularly. ...
    • Keep It Cool. ...
    • Invest In Uninterruptible Power Supply Devices. ...
    • Your Server Room Needs Access Cards.

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    What are the 3 three security services in the concept of access control? ›

    There are three main types of access control systems: discretionary access control (DAC), mandatory access control (MAC), and role-based access control (RBAC).

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    Which security method is best? ›

    WEP, WPA, WPA2 and WPA3: Which is best? When choosing from among WEP, WPA, WPA2 and WPA3 wireless security protocols, experts agree WPA3 is best for Wi-Fi security. As the most up-to-date wireless encryption protocol, WPA3 is the most secure choice.

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    What are the six 6 types of attacks on network security? ›

    The Six Types of Cyberattacks You're Most Likely to Face
    • Phishing Attacks. Phishing attacks are one of the most common types of cyberattacks. ...
    • Social Engineering Attacks. ...
    • Ransomware Attacks. ...
    • Malware and Virus Attacks. ...
    • Denial-of-Service (DoS) Attacks. ...
    • Spyware and Adware Attacks.

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    What are 3 different attacks on a network? ›

    What are the Common Types of Network Attacks?
    • Unauthorized access. Unauthorized access refers to attackers accessing a network without receiving permission. ...
    • Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks. ...
    • Man in the middle attacks. ...
    • Code and SQL injection attacks. ...
    • Privilege escalation. ...
    • Insider threats.

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    What are the types of TCP IP attacks? ›

    Based on that, we describe three main attacks on the TCP protocol, the SYN flooding attack, the TCP Reset attack, and the TCP session hijacking attack.

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    Can I pass CCNA in 3 months? ›

    The ccna can be passed in three months for a beginner. It does become a question though are you just studying to pass the exam for the CCNA, or to get a solid foundation of networking and also become ccna certified, the two are different.

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    Who is the youngest CCNA? ›

    This is what one Pakistani girl, Ayesh Fatima, has done by gaining the title: youngest-ever Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) professional in the world. The impressive seven-year-old has passed the certification and broken the record of an Indian girl named K.

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    Can you retake CCNA if you fail? ›

    Once passed, a candidate must wait a minimum of 180 days before taking the same exam with an identical exam number. Candidates may only take a beta exam once. Candidates who fail an exam must wait a period of five (5) calendar days, beginning the day after the failed attempt, to retake the exam.

    Read The Full Story ›
    How many times can you fail a Cisco exam? ›

    Candidates cannot retake the same written exam more than four times per rolling calendar year regardless of passing or failing the exam.

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    How long do you have to wait if you fail CCNA? ›

    How long do I have to wait if I don't pass the CCNA exam the first time? The policies dictate that you cannot retake the same exam in five calendar days, beginning with the day after the failed attempt. Online exam takers must wait 48 hours for this.

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    How quickly can you pass CCNA? ›

    By studying 30 to 60 minutes per day, CBT Nuggets says you should be ready for the CCNA in about 26 weeks.

    Read The Full Story ›
    How can I pass CCNA exam easily? ›

    5 Study Tips to Pass the CCNA Certification Exam
    1. Get Practical Experience.
    2. Obtain the Proper Study Materials.
    3. Schedule Practice Tests.
    4. Refresh Your Knowledge Right Before the Exam.
    5. Take a Breather.
    Feb 14, 2023

    Discover More Details ›
    Do you have to retake CCNA every 3 years? ›

    Cisco requires candidates earn 30 CE credits every three years to maintain their CCNA certification status. You can earn CE credits in a variety of ways, such as attending Cisco Live events, completing certain Cisco Learning Labs courses, or taking other qualifying exams.

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    What score do you need to pass CCNA 200 301? ›

    You will have 120 minutes to receive a passing score of approximately 825 out of 1000. If you work your way through all of our time proven training materials, that will be a piece of cake! For 2020 the current CCNA exam has been re-made and is now the 200-301 exam.

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    What is Cisco CCNA routing and switching? ›

    CCNA Routing and Switching focuses on network infrastructure, mainly routing and switching, but it also includes wireless access, security, and connectivity to branch offices using WAN. Achieving CCNA Routing and Switching. Certification.

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    What is Cisco CCNA 2? ›

    Course Description

    CCNA 2: Routers and Routing Basics is the second of four CCNA courses leading to the Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) designation. CCNA 2 focuses on initial router configuration, Cisco IOS Software management, routing protocol configuration, TCP/IP, and access control lists (ACLs).

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    What is networking CCNA routing and switching? ›

    The CCNA Routing and Switching – short for Cisco Certified Network Associate is a beginner level information technology (IT) certification that is offered by Cisco, the world's most famous company for manufacturing and selling networking equipment.

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    What is the difference between CCNA and CCNA routing and switching? ›

    The term CCNA in Networking may be utilized as an umbrella term for the associate degree training in the training courses used by Cisco while CCNA in Routing & Switching defines a prospect of being accredited at associate degree training in route and buttons.

    Find Out More ›
    What is the pass rate for the CCNA exam? ›

    What Is the Pass Rate of the CCNA Exam? The overall pass rate for the CCNA exam is typically around 85%; the specific figure changes slightly with each new version of the test that's published.

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    How long is a CCNA valid for? ›

    How Long is the CCNA Certificate Valid? Your certification is valid for three years after your date of issue. To recertify before your certificate's expiration date, you must satisfy several recertification criteria. You don't have to do anything to keep your CCNA certification active.

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    How hard is CCNA routing and switching? ›

    The CCNA exam is among the most challenging on the market. It will test the students on their ability to build a network using Cisco technology during the test. The test covers various topics, but the main focus is on switching and routing data packets. Hopefully, you have gained useful knowledge from our article.

    Read On ›
    What is the hardest Cisco certification? ›

    Cisco Certified Internetwork Expert (CCIE)

    The CCIE is the highest level of certification offered by Cisco and is one of the most respected and sought-after IT certifications today. It's also one of the most difficult to earn.

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    Is Cisco better than CompTIA? ›

    So, which one should you get, CompTIA Network+ or Cisco CCNA? If you're interested in working with any type of equipment and providing support for it, CompTIA Network+ is a good choice. If you're focused on Cisco products and technologies and would like to work primarily with them, then Cisco CCNA is a better option.

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    What is the CCNA called now? ›

    There are no longer multiple different CCNA exams and certifications – only a single, comprehensive exam is available. The new exam's code is 200-301 CCNA and its full name is Implementing and Administering Cisco Networking Technologies.

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    Is CCNA and Cisco same? ›

    The CCNA—which stands for Cisco Certified Network Associate—is an entry-level information technology (IT) certification issued by networking hardware company Cisco.

    Continue Reading ›
    What is the difference between CCNA and Cisco? ›

    Well, the main difference is in the focus of the exams. The CCNA exam covers a broad range of topics, including IP addressing, routing protocols, switching, security, and more. The CCNP exam, on the other hand, is much more specific and focuses primarily on Cisco routers and switches.

    Tell Me More ›
    Which exam is harder CCNA or Network+? ›

    CCNA Routing and Switching is a Cisco-specific networking certification. While it is still considered a beginner-level certification, most professionals consider it to be significantly more challenging than the CompTIA Network+ exam.

    Learn More Now ›
    Is the new CCNA easier or harder? ›

    In general, the new CCNA is shaping up to be harder than the old CCNA. The changes require that you have a wider knowledge base. Previously, you could ease your way into CCNA Routing & Switching by starting off with a CCENT (retired Feb 24, 2020) to get you into the CCNA Routing & Switching.

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    Can I do CCNP without CCNA? ›

    There are no formal prerequisites for CCNP. You do not have to earn CCNA before attempting a CCNP exam. Passing the core exam of a CCNP track also qualifies you to take the CCIE lab.

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